Re: [CANSLIM] Cheap?


From: "zillagirl" <zillagirl@email.msn.com>
Subject: Re: [CANSLIM] Cheap?
Date: Mon, 29 Jul 2002 17:38:01 -0700

Previous Article (by Author): Re: [CANSLIM] question "rolf hertenstein"
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I just saw Bill O'neil on T.V. and I believe he said  that historically P.E.
does tend to go up and that he would think that a P.E. in the low 20's is
reasonable. If he is correct I would think that gives us a little breather,
although he did say he didn't put that much in stock in P.E. ratios.
- ----- Original Message -----
From: <Spencer48@aol.com>
To: <canslim@lists.xmission.com>
Sent: Wednesday, July 17, 2002 11:08 AM
Subject: Re: [CANSLIM] Cheap?


> zillagirl:
>
>      Interesting observation.  I see PE's as being historically
> comparable-despite fewer buyers in the past than now-because:  PE's are
> ratios.  The price will go up as demand (buying) increases.  However,
> earnings (the denominator) will also reflect history's marching-on.  Thus,
> despite prices increasing, earnings will also increase (whether due to
> inflation or productivity increases which lead to real profit growth).
Now
> if they both increase equivalently-compared to what they were in the
> past-PE's should stay the same.
>
>      I believe (I have no evidence of this, nor would I know how to get
it)
> earnings have increased equivalently with price.  The reason I believe
this
> is that stock prices are based on earnings, and based on realistic and
> reputable projections of earnings, investors will buy the stock.  This
will
> cause the price of the stock to rise-but only because investors now see
that
> earnings will rise (which, if fact, they have).
>
>      The reason why the PE's are comparable (from one era to another) is
> because investors psychology does not change-they will always buy, so long
as
> they believe the earnings merit that the stock should be bought.
>
> jans (Assuming my answer is-in part-correct, does this mean that "my mind
is
> smarter" than zillagirls?  My vote is "No"-for I wouldn't even [and
history
> proves this] have thought up the question.)
>
>
>
> In a message dated 7/16/2002 11:16:25 PM Eastern Daylight Time,
"zillagirl"
> <zillagirl@email.msn.com> writes:
>
>  I have a question for minds that are smarter then my own.  When we look
at
>  price to earnings, don't we have to consider the number of people
investing
>  in the market today over what it was in the past.  I've read
>  historically -that in the past- 10 to 15% of households were involved in
the
>  stock market.  Now I've seen figures of 50% or more.     If 35% more
>  American households started putting money in the same 10,000 or so stocks
>  that existed before-it seems like that would drive up the price, even if
the
>  business was no more profitable or productive then before.(supply and
>  demand). Possible even keeping the price up if these households kept
>  investing(higher P/E ratios)      Hence maybe it would be unrealistic to
>  think that the correct P/E for this point in time should be exactly in
line
>  with the correct P/Es of the past.  Unless of course that extra 35% of
the
>  people got out of the market again.       Kind of like saying-the
>  babyboomers are here and our mind tells us that we need many more
retirement
>  homes- but historically, over the past 75 years, 2 retirement homes per
city
>  have been the norm so that is the figure we will stick with.   If this
>  theory sounds reasonable-it would certainly take some of the fright out
of
>  those charts. >>
>
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